Category: CompTIA

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QUESTION 211
A penetration tester finds that a company’s login credentials for the email client were client being sent in clear text. Which of the following should be done to provide encrypted logins to the email server?

A.    Enable IPSec and configure SMTP.
B.    Enable SSH and LDAP credentials.
C.    Enable MIME services and POP3.
D.    Enable an SSL certificate for IMAP services.

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QUESTION 201
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QUESTION 183
A system administrator wants to provide balance between the security of a wireless network and usability. The administrator is concerned with wireless encryption compatibility of older devices used by some employees. Which of the following would provide strong security and backward compatibility when accessing the wireless network?

A.    Open wireless network and SSL VPN
B.    WPA using a preshared key
C.    WPA2 using a RADIUS back-end for 802.1x authentication
D.    WEP with a 40-bit key

Answer: C

QUESTION 184
An information security specialist is reviewing the following output from a Linux server.
1841
Based on the above information, which of the following types of malware was installed on the server? / local/

A.    Logic bomb
B.    Trojan
C.    Backdoor
D.    Ransomware
E.    Rootkit

Answer: C

QUESTION 185
In terms of encrypting data, which of the following is BEST described as a way to safeguard password data by adding random data to it in storage?

A.    Using salt
B.    Using hash algorithms
C.    Implementing elliptical curve
D.    Implementing PKI

Answer: A

QUESTION 186
A system administrator wants to provide for and enforce wireless access accountability during events where external speakers are invited to make presentations to a mixed audience of employees and non-employees. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.    Shared accounts
B.    Preshared passwords
C.    Least privilege
D.    Sponsored guest

Answer: D

QUESTION 187
Which of the following would MOST likely appear in an uncredentialed vulnerability scan?

A.    Self-signed certificates
B.    Missing patches
C.    Auditing parameters
D.    Inactive local accounts

Answer: D

QUESTION 188
A security analyst observes the following events in the logs of an employee workstation:
1881
Given the information provided, which of the following MOST likely occurred on the workstation?

A.    Application whitelisting controls blocked an exploit payload from executing.
B.    Antivirus software found and quarantined three malware files.
C.    Automatic updates were initiated but failed because they had not been approved.
D.    The SIEM log agent was not turned properly and reported a false positive.

Answer: A

QUESTION 189
When identifying a company’s most valuable assets as part of a BIA, which of the following should be the FIRST priority?

A.    Life
B.    Intellectual property
C.    Sensitive data
D.    Public reputation

Answer: A

QUESTION 190
An organization needs to implement a large PKI. Network engineers are concerned that repeated transmission of the OCSP will impact network performance. Which of the following should the security analyst recommend is lieu of an OCSP?

A.    CSR
B.    CRL
C.    CA
D.    OID

Answer: B

QUESTION 191
When considering a third-party cloud service provider, which of the following criteria would be the BEST to include in the security assessment process? (Select two.)

A.    Use of performance analytics
B.    Adherence to regulatory compliance
C.    Data retention policies
D.    Size of the corporation
E.    Breadth of applications support

Answer: BC

QUESTION 192
Which of the following occurs when the security of a web application relies on JavaScript for input validation?

A.    The integrity of the data is at risk.
B.    The security of the application relies on antivirus.
C.    A host-based firewall is required.
D.    The application is vulnerable to race conditions.

Answer: A

QUESTION 193
An analyst is reviewing a simple program for potential security vulnerabilities before being deployed to a Windows server. Given the following code:
1931
Which of the following vulnerabilities is present?

A.    Bad memory pointer
B.    Buffer overflow
C.    Integer overflow
D.    Backdoor

Answer: B

QUESTION 194
An organization’s file server has been virtualized to reduce costs. Which of the following types of backups would be MOST appropriate for the particular file server?

A.    Snapshot
B.    Full
C.    Incremental
D.    Differential

Answer: C

QUESTION 195
A wireless network uses a RADIUS server that is connected to an authenticator, which in turn connects to a supplicant. Which of the following represents the authentication architecture in use?

A.    Open systems authentication
B.    Captive portal
C.    RADIUS federation
D.    802.1x

Answer: D

QUESTION 196
An employer requires that employees use a key-generating app on their smartphones to log into corporate applications. In terms of authentication of an individual, this type of access policy is BEST defined as:

A.    Something you have.
B.    Something you know.
C.    Something you do.
D.    Something you are.

Answer: A

QUESTION 197
Adhering to a layered security approach, a controlled access facility employs security guards who verify the authorization of all personnel entering the facility. Which of the following terms BEST describes the security control being employed?

A.    Administrative
B.    Corrective
C.    Deterrent
D.    Compensating

Answer: A

QUESTION 198
A security analyst is hardening a web server, which should allow a secure certificate-based session using the organization’s PKI infrastructure. The web server should also utilize the latest security techniques and standards. Given this set of requirements, which of the following techniques should the analyst implement to BEST meet these requirements? (Select two.)

A.    Install an X- 509-compliant certificate.
B.    Implement a CRL using an authorized CA.
C.    Enable and configure TLS on the server.
D.    Install a certificate signed by a public CA.
E.    Configure the web server to use a host header.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 199
A manager wants to distribute a report to several other managers within the company. Some of them reside in remote locations that are not connected to the domain but have a local server. Because there is sensitive data within the report and the size of the report is beyond the limit of the email attachment size, emailing the report is not an option. Which of the following protocols should be implemented to distribute the report securely? (Select three.)

A.    S/MIME
B.    SSH
C.    SNMPv3
D.    FTPS
E.    SRTP
F.    HTTPS
G.    LDAPS

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 200
An auditor is reviewing the following output from a password-cracking tool:

User:1: Password1
User2: Recovery!
User3: Alaskan10
User4: 4Private
User5: PerForMance2

Which of the following methods did the author MOST likely use?

A.    Hybrid
B.    Dictionary
C.    Brute force
D.    Rainbow table

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D.    Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E.    Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 32
Which of the following BEST describes a routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed from a string?

A.    Error handling to protect against program exploitation
B.    Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks
C.    Input validation to protect against SQL injection
D.    Padding to protect against string buffer overflows

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following is an important step to take BEFORE moving any installation packages from a test environment to production?

A.    Roll back changes in the test environment
B.    Verify the hashes of files
C.    Archive and compress the files
D.     Update the secure baseline

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which of the following cryptographic attacks would salting of passwords render ineffective?

A.    Brute force
B.    Dictionary
C.    Rainbow tables
D.     Birthday

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A network administrator wants to implement a method of securing internal routing.
Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.    DMZ
B.    NAT
C.    VPN
D.    PAT

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?

A.    Public
B.    Private
C.    Shared
D.    Session

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue?

A.    Botnet
B.    Ransomware
C.    Polymorphic malware
D.    Armored virus

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A company is currently using the following configuration:

* IAS server with certificate-based EAP-PEAP and MSCHAP
* Unencrypted authentication via PAP

A security administrator needs to configure a new wireless setup with the following configurations:

* PAP authentication method
* PEAP and EAP provide two-factor authentication

Which of the following forms of authentication are being used? (Select TWO).

A.    PAP
B.    PEAP
C.    MSCHAP
D.    PEAP-MSCHAP
E.    EAP
F.    EAP-PEAP

Answer: AF

QUESTION 39
A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For which of the following reasons should administrator take advantage of the Subject Alternative Name (SAM) attribute of a certificate?

A.    It can protect multiple domains
B.    It provides extended site validation
C.    It does not require a trusted certificate authority
D.    It protects unlimited subdomains

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
After a merger between two companies a security analyst has been asked to ensure that the organization’s systems are secured against infiltration by any former employees that were terminated during the transition.
Which of the following actions are MOST appropriate to harden applications against infiltration by former employees? (Select TWO)

A.    Monitor VPN client access
B.    Reduce failed login out settings
C.    Develop and implement updated access control policies
D.    Review and address invalid login attempts
E.    Increase password complexity requirements
F.    Assess and eliminate inactive accounts

Answer: CF

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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 11
If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 11
A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
D.    The HR department should have information security personnel who are involved in the investigation of the incident sign non-disclosure agreements so the company cannot be held liable for customer data that might be viewed during an investigation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has recently launched a new billing invoice website for a few key vendors.
The cybersecurity analyst is receiving calls that the website is performing slowly and the pages sometimes time out.
The analyst notices the website is receiving millions of requests, causing the service to become unavailable.
Which of the following can be implemented to maintain the availability of the website?

A.    VPN
B.    Honeypot
C.    Whitelisting
D.    DMZ
E.    MAC filtering

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A cybersecurity analyst has received the laptop of a user who recently left the company.
The analyst types `history’ into the prompt, and sees this line of code in the latest bash history:

131

This concerns the analyst because this subnet should not be known to users within the company.
Which of the following describes what this code has done on the network?

A.    Performed a ping sweep of the Class C network.
B.    Performed a half open SYB scan on the network.
C.    Sent 255 ping packets to each host on the network.
D.    Sequentially sent an ICMP echo reply to the Class C network.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A security audit revealed that port 389 has been used instead of 636 when connecting to LDAP for the authentication of users.
The remediation recommended by the audit was to switch the port to 636 wherever technically possible.
Which of the following is the BEST response?

A.    Correct the audit. This finding is a well-known false positive; the services that typically run on 389 and 636 are identical.
B.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as encrypted services run by default on 636.
C.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as 389 is a reserved port that requires root access and can expose the server to privilege escalation attacks.
D.    Correct the audit. This finding is accurate, but the correct remediation is to update encryption keys on each of the servers to match port 636.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A security analyst is reviewing IDS logs and notices the following entry:
Which of the following attacks is occurring?

A.    Cross-site scripting
B.    Header manipulation
C.    SQL injection
D.    XML injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A company that is hiring a penetration tester wants to exclude social engineering from the list of authorized activities.
Which of the following documents should include these details?

A.    Acceptable use policy
B.    Service level agreement
C.    Rules of engagement
D.    Memorandum of understanding
E.    Master service agreement

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A reverse engineer was analyzing malware found on a retailer’s network and found code extracting track data in memory.
Which of the following threats did the engineer MOST likely uncover?

A.    POS malware
B.    Rootkit
C.    Key logger
D.    Ransomware

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team.
Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Select two.)

A.    COBIT
B.    NIST
C.    ISO 27000 series
D.    ITIL
E.    OWASP

Answer: DE

QUESTION 19
A system administrator recently deployed and verified the installation of a critical patch issued by the company’s primary OS vendor. This patch was supposed to remedy a vulnerability that would allow an adversary to remotely execute code from over the network. However, the administrator just ran a vulnerability assessment of networked systems, and each of them still reported having the same vulnerability. Which of the following if the MOST likely explanation for this?

A.    The administrator entered the wrong IP range for the assessment.
B.    The administrator did not wait long enough after applying the patch to run the assessment.
C.    The patch did not remediate the vulnerability.
D.    The vulnerability assessment returned false positives.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
An incident response report indicates a virus was introduced through a remote host that was connected to corporate resources.
A cybersecurity analyst has been asked for a recommendation to solve this issue.
Which of the following should be applied?

A.    MAC
B.    TAP
C.    NAC
D.    ACL

Answer: C

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B.    Folder Options
C.    Display
D.    System

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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop Question
A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed.

1) Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives.
2) Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/O, storage requirements. Instructions:

– All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary
– Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes
– If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity checkboxes
– Server profiles may be dragged only once

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